Page 38 of 60 · 1182 total questions.
Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such as DHCP or DNS?
The correct answer is B. Option B: 2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
The correct answer is C. Option C: Both have a 50 micron core diameter.
What is the primary purpose of private address space?
The correct answer is C. Option C: conserve globally unique address space
Explanation
OSPF elects a designated router on multiaccess networks to reduce adjacency and LSA exchange overhead. This option keeps traffic private / properly secured as required.
What is a characteristic of a collapsed-core network topology?
The correct answer is D. Option D: It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.
A technician receives a report of network slowness and the issue has been isolated to the interface FastEthemet0/13. What is the root cause of the issue? FastEthernet0/13 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0001.4d27.66cd (bia 0001.4d27.66cd) MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit, DLY 100 usec, reliability 250/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive not set - Auto-duplex (Full) Auto Speed (100), 100BaseTX/FX ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input 18:52:43, output 00:00:01, output hang never Last clearing of “show interface” counters never Queueing strategy: fifo - Output queue 0/40, 0 drops; input queue 0/75, 0 drops 5 minute input rate 12000 bits/sec, 6 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 24000 bits/sec, 6 packets/sec 14488019 packets input, 2434163609 bytes Received 345348 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 261028 input errors, 259429 CRC, 1599 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 watchdog, 84207 multicast 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 19658279 packets output, 3529106068 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 1 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out
The correct answer is C. Option C: physical errors This option decouples the components so they scale independently and absorb load spikes.
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?
The correct answer is A. Option A: Users experience poor wireless network performance.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?
The correct answer is B. Option B: There is a duplex mismatch.
What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?
The correct answer is D. Option D: software-defined controller for automation of devices and services
Explanation
Controller-based networking centralizes policy and exposes programmable management interfaces.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables an EtherChannel to form dynamically between SW1 and SW2 by using an industry-standard protocol, and to support full IP connectivity between all PCs?
The correct answer is C. Option C: SW1#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode active!interface Gi0/2switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode activeSW2#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1...
Explanation
A trunk carries traffic for multiple VLANs between network devices.
Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?
The correct answer is C. Option C: out-of-band management
Refer to the exhibit. Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A. What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?
The correct answer is A. Option A: It floods the frame out of every ports except the source port.
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)
The correct answer is A, B. Option A: Enable the Status option. Option B: Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11g Only.
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
The correct answer is D. Option D: It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN.
Explanation
A VLAN creates a separate Layer 2 broadcast domain on switched infrastructure.
Which two functions does a WLC perform in the lightweight access-point architecture that an AP performs independently in an autonomous architecture? (Choose two.)
The correct answer is A, B. Option A: managing RF channels, including transmission power Option B: handling the association, authentication, and roaming of wireless clients
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?
The correct answer is D. Option D: Set the Layer 2 Security to None.
A network administrator plans an update to the WI-FI networks in multiple branch offices. Each location is configured with an SSID called “Office”. The administrator wants every user who connects to the SSID at any location to have the same access level. What must be set the same on each network to meet the requirement?
The correct answer is D. Option D: security policies
Refer to the exhibit. The P2P Blocking Action option is disabled on the WLC. The security team has a new requirement for each client to retain their assigned IP addressing as the clients move between locations in the campus network. Which action completes this configuration?
The correct answer is A. Option A: Enable the Static IP Tunneling option. This option keeps traffic private / properly secured as required.
Refer to the exhibit. A multivendor network exists and the company is implementing VoIP over the network for the first time. Which configuration is needed to implement the neighbor discovery protocol on the interface and allow it to remain off for the remaining interfaces?
The correct answer is B. Option B: SW1(config)#no cdp run -SW1(config)#interface gigabitethernet1/0/1SW1(config-if)#lldp transmit -SW1(config-if)#lldp receive
Explanation
CDP is Cisco's proprietary Layer 2 neighbor discovery protocol. LLDP is the vendor-neutral IEEE neighbor discovery protocol.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1, R2, and R3 use a protocol to identify the neighbors’ IP addresses, hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?
The correct answer is C. Option C: Configure the no cdp enable command on g0/2.
Explanation
CDP is Cisco's proprietary Layer 2 neighbor discovery protocol.
SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)
The correct answer is C, D. Option C: Enable Media Session Snooping on the WLAN. Option D: Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.
Explanation
QoS classifies and manages traffic to protect delay-, jitter-, or loss-sensitive applications.
Showing questions 741–760 of 1182 · Page 38 of 60